Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation

\(\int^{\pi}_{0}\frac{cos^{2}\theta-1}{sin^{2}\theta}d\theta\)

= \(\int^{\pi}_{0}\frac{-sin^{2}\theta}{sin^{2}\theta}\) = \(\int^{\pi}_{0}d\theta = -\pi\)

There is an explanation video available below.

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