Four boys participated in a competition in which their respective chances of winning prizes are \(\frac{1}{5}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{3}\) and \(\frac{1}{2}\). What is the probability that at most two of them win prizes?

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heraldkolawole
6 years ago

It is a little confusing

Zellosharp
1 year ago

Hmmm, make me wanna wonder where all these probability formula are coming from

Zellosharp
1 year ago

But it's kinda easy when you take time to think about it

Zellosharp
1 year ago

We are looking for the probability of 'at most two' winning. So definitely the only complementary scenarios which may happen are if either three or four boys win. Now taking the probability of either three or four boys winning and subtracting it from 1 will give you the probability of either zero, one or two boys winning (which means 'at most two' )

femsyowy
1 year ago

I don't even understand

KillerBobo15
5 years ago

The ans is wrong. Prob. that most two will win is the same as
(1 and 2 losing ) and (3 and 4 winning) or (3 and 4 losing) and (1and 2 winning)
U will get 7/60

KillerBobo15
5 years ago

It is wrong. Prob. that at most two will win is the same as
(1 and 2 losing ) and (3 and 4 winning) or (3 and 4 losing) and (1and 2 winning)
U will get 7/60

KillerBobo15
5 years ago

It is wrong. Prob. that most two will win is the same as
(1 and 2 losing ) and (3 and 4 winning) or (3 and 4 losing) and (1and 2 winning)
U will get 7/60

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