Four boys participated in a competition in which their respective chances of winning prizes are \(\frac{1}{5}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{3}\) and \(\frac{1}{2}\). What is the probability that at most two of them win prizes?
Explanation
Video Explanation
No video available
Post your Contribution
Discussions (10)

We are looking for the probability of 'at most two' winning. So definitely the only complementary scenarios which may happen are if either three or four boys win. Now taking the probability of either three or four boys winning and subtracting it from 1 will give you the probability of either zero, one or two boys winning (which means 'at most two' )

The ans is wrong. Prob. that most two will win is the same as
(1 and 2 losing ) and (3 and 4 winning) or (3 and 4 losing) and (1and 2 winning)
U will get 7/60

It is wrong. Prob. that at most two will win is the same as
(1 and 2 losing ) and (3 and 4 winning) or (3 and 4 losing) and (1and 2 winning)
U will get 7/60

It is wrong. Prob. that most two will win is the same as
(1 and 2 losing ) and (3 and 4 winning) or (3 and 4 losing) and (1and 2 winning)
U will get 7/60


