rises as it price rises
falls as it price rises
rises as it price falls
is perfectly inelastic
Explanation
No explanation available
Video Explanation
No video available
Post your Contribution
Discussions (7)
inferior goods have perfectly inelastic demand curve, so there is little or no change in their demand as price rise or fall, so the correct answer is D
the answer is A because inferior goods are abnormal goods and it does not apply the 1st law of demand and supply for abnormal goods the higher the price the higher the quantity demanded
Here is an explanation:
Inferior goods are those goods whose demand falls as consumer income rises, or goods whose demand rises as income rises, vice-versa. unlike superior goods whose demand rises as income falls or demand falls as income rises, they obey the law of demand, unlike inferior goods that don't obey the law of demand, example of inferior goods are giffen goods
REF: check; COmprehensive Economics, Essensial Economics
the answer is A since inferior goods are abnormal goods. that they are positively slope with price level. also d income infect is negative
