Price discrimination can be described profitably by a monopolist when the elasticity of demand for his product is
elastic in both markets
uniltary elastic in both market
inelastic in both markets
elastic in one market and inelastic in the other
unitary elastic in none of the markets
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No o!if there is price inelasticity in both market consumer will buy no matter the price.but if one market is elastic an the other not?they will buy in one elastic where price changes affect the demand.e.g. Wil buy more if price reduces.
Ade don't be confuse is elastic in one and inelastic in the other dat is base on d elasticity if his product den he will decide d price
Price discrimination is a change in price, you cannot have a change in price at a market that is said to be inelastic
For a price to be discriminated
One market has to have a change in price (elastic) and the other has to be fixed or hardly change (elastic)
